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I used a PHP library, which in turn is elementary based on libraries published with an Apache 2.0 license and a LGPL license. The author himself has published his library under a GPLv2 license. Because the GPLv2 license is not compatible with Apache 2.0 license, it would have to be invalid, right? If it is invalid, then my work that only includes this library to use the API can not be a GPLv2 license either.

So is the entire construct completely unlicensed, or his derivate-library only, because he has chosen the incompatible license (GPLv2)?

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    It really depends on how exactly the libraries are used and connected. The more distinct they are, the less they entangle each other. – curiousdannii May 1 '18 at 4:20
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    It could happen that no one (perhaps not even you) can legally use your combined work (or redistribute binaries). Details matter a lot. So edit your question to improve it and give your code, the other code and all the relevant licenses. You might contact the author of that other library and point these license issues to him. He might release his library (if he owns all the copyright) with also some other license. – Basile Starynkevitch May 1 '18 at 9:44

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