Let's say I have a GPL web app. Somebody forks it, adds some back end changes and hosts it. In theory, the person installing it is the user so they need the modified source code, not the people signing up to the web page. But what happens to the JS?
Basically if I as a user log into to a web page, I download the JS which is under the GPL and then I execute it in the browser. That makes me a user, right? As a user, I have the right to the full source code, not just the JS.
Why does the downloading of JS count as 'interaction over the network' and not as 'distributing the source code'?
Edit: this is what makes me think it's not distribution https://meta.discourse.org/t/a-question-on-gpl-licensing-and-the-current-wordpress-debacle/3355/11