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Let's suppose that developer D created some OS code and published it under some OS license, e.g. MIT. A company C downloaded copy of the code, modified it a bit and incorporated in its own work. Suddenly it appeared that the code had unnoticed bugs in non-modified section. Does C has now legal case against D for inflicted damages, if any has place?

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To quote from the MIT License:

THE SOFTWARE IS PROVIDED "AS IS", WITHOUT WARRANTY OF ANY KIND, EXPRESS OR IMPLIED, INCLUDING BUT NOT LIMITED TO THE WARRANTIES OF MERCHANTABILITY, FITNESS FOR A PARTICULAR PURPOSE AND NONINFRINGEMENT. IN NO EVENT SHALL THE AUTHORS OR COPYRIGHT HOLDERS BE LIABLE FOR ANY CLAIM, DAMAGES OR OTHER LIABILITY, WHETHER IN AN ACTION OF CONTRACT, TORT OR OTHERWISE, ARISING FROM, OUT OF OR IN CONNECTION WITH THE SOFTWARE OR THE USE OR OTHER DEALINGS IN THE SOFTWARE.

Other licenses contain similar wording, but even if they don't the general principle of "caveat emptor" applies. At least in UK law, the only way C could possibly make a successful claim against D would be if the "bugs" were actually deliberately and maliciously introduced, although that would rapidly be moving from a civil case to a criminal one.

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    It should be noted that this would be the case even for proprietary software and even if C had bought the code from D, at least in my jurisdiction. Here, we have a fundamental distinction between dealings between two "tradespeople" and dealings between a "consumer" and an "enterprise". The exact same thing, i.e. a purchase contract is treated very differently. E.g. when a consumer buys a good from an enterprise, the enterprise is liable for two years for any defect the good had at the time it was sold, and for the first six months there is even a reversal of proof where it is automatically – Jörg W Mittag Jul 25 at 20:58
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    … assumed that any defect that surfaces during the first half year was present at the time of sale. Whereas, when a tradesperson sells something to another tradesperson, it is the buyer's obligation to inspect the goods and report any defects "without delay", otherwise the goods are accepted as delivered. The former is designed for consumer protection, the latter is designed to expedite and remove friction in trade. So, even if C had paid D for the software, it would have been their obligation to immediately review the code and report those defects to D. – Jörg W Mittag Jul 25 at 21:01
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    Incidentally, this also answers the question "Why would anyone pay for open-source software". Well, you don't really pay for the software, but, for example, you pay for the possibility of having someone to sue. – Jörg W Mittag Jul 25 at 21:04

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